by Jeff Sovern
Reuters reports that the bill has passed an Assembly committee, and is expected to pass the Assembly in August (the state Senate has already passed it). Here's the part I don't understand: if California enacts the law, how can it avoid being preempted under the Federal Arbitration Act, as SCOTUS has interpreted it? Or is the goal here something else? I would be grateful if someone could post a comment answering those questions.
IS LAW ACCORDING TO THE STATE OF CARLIFONIA OR ACCORDING TO SCOTUS